A 32-year-old man comes to the office after being told at a health fair screening that he had blood in his urine.
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) of the neck is inappropriate because an additional diagnostic test is unlikely to change medical management.
ACP Internist has brought back its MKSAP quiz. This popular feature was so heavily requested by our readers that we're restoring it in our print edition and ACP Internist Weekly e-mail updates.
A 28-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-week history of “stuffiness,” decreased hearing, and discomfort in his left ear. He has no other symptoms and otherwise feels well except for mild nasal congestion that he attributes to seasonal allergies.
A 75-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital 4 hours after onset of chest pain with findings of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. She was taken emergently to the catheterization laboratory and underwent emergency percutaneous coronary
A 31-year-old man is evaluated for follow-up 2 days after an emergency department visit for palpitations. He reports intermittent palpitations and occasional episodes of shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
9. /L). Absolute neutrophil count:. 400/µL (0.4 10. 9. /L). Direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test:.
C. HLA B27 testing. D. Nucleic acid amplification urine test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. ... The correct answer is D: Nucleic acid amplification urine test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
A 62-year-old woman is evaluated for a 4-month history of decreased exercise tolerance, joint stiffness, mild weakness, and a rash on her hands. She has noted increasing difficulty carrying heavy objects and feels exhausted after climbing stairs.
A 42-year-old man comes to the office to discuss results of imaging studies, which were ordered because of a change in his pattern of chronic migraine. Headache episodes have now improved. Following a physical exam and noncontrast CT scan, what is