The MKSAP Challenge
A 39-year-old executive comes to the office for a follow-up visit. She had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure one week ago, witnessed by her husband, who reports that the seizure started suddenly. She had tonic extension and stiffening of her whole body followed by rhythmic jerking movements of her arms, trunk and legs. The patient had no warning prior to the seizure, and afterward fell into a deep sleep. She was hospitalized.
Wake and sleep electroencephalography and MRI of the brain with contrast were normal, and she was sent home on a maintenance dose of phenytoin. The patient states that, for the four nights prior to the seizure, she slept no more than two hours a night to finish an assignment. There is no personal or family history of seizures. Neurologic examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Continue phenytoin
B. Discontinue phenytoin
C. Discontinue phenytoin and begin carbamazepine
D. Discontinue phenytoin and begin valproic acid
E. Discontinue phenytoin and begin gabapentin
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